The English Class System

Apr 22 2003  | Views 20422 |  Comments  (184)
In this essay we examine data that leads us to conclude that many, if not all of the preceding assumptions are faulty, and directly result from our colonial education. In particular we seek to distinguish in this essay between the learning of English as a language for communication versus the use of English as a primary medium of instruction and a symbol for societal rank in a colonial society. ... Expand

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  amaravian posted 1 year ago

This discussion has been going on and but for the fact that we belong to one country, we are different in having various languages that can support their own  survival.where do we have  a common platform?This is in reference to India alone.



  schuncher posted 4 yrs ago

A revelation! Wonder if anything like this ever appeared in an Indian English language publication. I found this Mahatma Gandhi quote from 'Svaraj and Postmodernism' by Makarand Paranjape (JNU):


It is my considered opinion that English education in the manner in which it has been given has emasculated the English-educated Indian.... The process of replacing the vernacular has been one of the saddest chapters in the British connection. ... No country can become a nation by producing a race of imitators.

It [the system of English education] was born in error, for the British rulers honesty believed the indigenous system to be worse than useless. It has been nurtured in sin, for the tendency has been to dwarf the Indian body, mind and soul. Young India 27 April 1921



  Ashish Garg posted 5 yrs ago

I think people have lost track of what Sankrant wants to say. Point he makes is not about abandoing English, rather the point is to have our education on our languages whilst teaching english as a second language. That does not create a class difference as everyone has studied English as second language and everyone is perfect with his/her mother tongue. Our languages will survive and progress as well as we will learn English. Suppose, tomorrow there is some other language which may become a dominant language in the world, are we going to change our medium of instruction to that language? That would be insane, even to think of. Best solution is to give education in the languages of those states and teach the world dominant language as second language which at present is English. Simple.



  Guessing posted 5 yrs ago

Thus, predominance of foreign language and poverty, social strife including civil and international wars are all functions of colonialism, so positively correlated? Makes some sense... Fluency with English did play a role however in our success with IT. "It's all due to English" is bs, of course; our intellectual traditions; particularly logical, mathematical and scientific in general; were the really crucial factor. How many of us know that most of our school maths, barring geometry, is wholly Indian in origin? This fact means school pupils have no reason to treat maths as unfamiliar/foreign requiring some extraordinary talent or outlandish training to master. Result: it does help in giving them the confidence to tackle the not too significant amount of maths required for most IT jobs.



  Sankrant posted 5 yrs ago

Ramesh, Thanks for digging up this information, but I think that you are at least partially missing the point that the article is making. In the article, I state "We are not suggesting here that the issue of language is the only significant variable in this regard to explain the difference in economic conditions of these countries. Correlation, by itself, does not establish causality. We are not suggesting that all these countries are poor simply because of this language class-separation. To look at the direct causality we do not need to look far -- 19 out of these 20 poorest countries were colonies of exploitation by European powers, the 20th being a protectorate. " In fact, I would suggest that co-relation with agriculture does not establish base casuality either, since the immediate question is why are certain economies still agricultural based vs. others. And we come back to education, which both of us will agree is a positive factor. So once we start looking at education we fairly soon notice this trend -- that developed economies by and large do not have the discontintuity of medium problem that is exhibited with regularity in the poorer countries. For a researcher, correlation is like a clue in a mystery story -- something that may lead to other things or may turn out to be a red herring, as we study this more. In particular, it is intriguing that Asian economies that did well (even discounting the the city-nations of Singapore and Hong Kong), all do not suffer from this "medium break" in education. Of course, there are other reasons, relating to liberalization that these economies did well -- but still this remains an intriguing topic to me - to to study societies that do or do not exhibit this language break (and most economically advanced societies don't). Also, if you read the 2020 projections for India, the service sector is slated to be a much larger part of the economy than manufacturing (service is growing much more rapidly even today) -- so higher education again becomes important. Whether an English-only higher education model will allow widespread alleviation of poverty and broad economic opportunity in India remains to be seen. In any case, thanks for your comments. This paper is putting out a preliminary idea and is by no means the results of a research project (though it could turn into one). That the IMF has not studied the co-relation of language itself does not rule out that none exists -- discovering new facets of these issues is exactly why research of various kinds continues. I believe the language issue is currently under-investigated, though there is some work going on. See for instance: http://sunzi.lib.hku.hk/cgi-bin/hkuto/abs?B2116177x In this paper done at the University of Hong Kong, the author investigates the role of national language policies on economics development and concludes that the impact of nationalism (favoring native languages) had been benefical to the development of the 3 countries studied. Clearly for a country the size and diversity of India, this is a topic that should be studied much more than it is, which, in a small way, was my intent in starting this discussion.



  Ramesh Chellaton posted 5 yrs ago

This, I hope, will settle the issues I raised earlier, namely that the article was gibberish - with questionable assumptions, methodology and absurd conclusions... and I hope to show why

The data below was pulled off from the World Bank site- for year 1999 (had most data fields filled). Look for DataQuery. Of the big list presented by the author, I picked up the first 5 countries from each set. A little observation shows why these countries should not be compared - not apples and oranges. But apples and sea cucumbers (this is an animal, just in case).

countryGDPpopFDIAgriculture(%)
Denmark176B5.3M12B2.7
Germany2T82M55B1.2
Japan4.5T127M12B1.5
Sweden241B9M59B0
Switzerland260B7M12B0
USA9.2T280M301BN/A
Angola6B12.7M2B6.4
Burundi714M6.70?52
Congo (DR)N/A1MN/A
Malawi2B60M38
Niger2B10.5M0?41
Sierra Leone670M5M1M44

I hope the table turns out readable. The reason why these should not be compared: (1) Most of the African countries cited are/were afflicted by civil or regional wars.
The OECD countries have had stable economies at least since 1945, and recall Marshall Plan for Germany & Japan(2) As a result (of war), FDI can be reduced to negligible amounts. Note, FDI to US - 300B (1999). (3) GDP - an indication of overall production levels. the more you have the better. But, high population can reduce benefits derived.
(4) Agriculture as a % indicates how much value addition is in the economy. The more economically developed a country, the lower this level. This is because either this industry employs a lot of low-skilled workers & low tech, or very few workers & high-tech machinery, freeing up people for service/manufacturing sectors. Also, note, though Angola has low agri number, it's GDP is mostly from minerals - ores & oil. I also, have numbers for service sectors, but putting the info in thru this small window is tough. From a research publication from IMF - "Promoting Growth in Sub-Saharan Africa" I quote - "An increasing number of countries in sub-Saharan Africa are showing signs of economic progress, reflecting the implementation of better economic policies and structural reforms. These countries have successfully cut domestic and external financial imbalances, enhancing economic efficiency. They have given greater priority to public spending on health care, education, and other basic social services. In addition, there has been a growing movement toward more open and participatory forms of government that encourage cooperation between the state and civil society." end quote. Nothing about language colonial or otherwise. Note, the title says "Sub-Saharan Africa". It doesn't make sense to compare across continents for cultural/geographic reasons. Nor should you compare India and Nepal - the differences in size of population & resources make it pointless (lessons learnt from one cannot be applied to the other). Or India and Brazil - despite the temptation - the cultural & political differences. http://www.imf.org/external/pubs/ft/issues/issues23/ Macro-economies are affected by education levels (not medium of instruction), health-care, savings rate & investment rate, transparency & freedom to trade internally & externally, low debt-burden (for higher economic efficiency), political & economic freedom. So, finally, if the economists at IMF are foolish to not take into account colonial language, I'd rather be fool. Next time, before people start trashing India, I hope they will think a bit more - of your data quality, relevance of data, process of analysis and conclusions drawn. And, btw, the many "misconceptions" - where on earth did these get conjured up? Was a scientific poll taken or is this a result of a psychedelic vision???



  Ramesh Chellaton posted 5 yrs ago

Sankrant,
Models that attempt to explain economic trends rarely with one factor can look nice but are useless. There may be statistical correlation, but you are attempting to show causality based on that. And that is wrong.
Yes, in our study we analyzed 6 countries - all in Central America - Costa Rica, Guatemala, Honduaras, Panama, and Chile. We had economic and social data from 20 years from these countries from www.worldbank.org. We started of with 9 countries, and dropped 2 (Nicaragua, Bolivia) for lack of extensive data, and 1 (Cuba) for credibility gap reasons - the faculty was reluctant to assume that the data available was useful.
We avoided comparisons of countries across continents because we were unsure of factors - geographic and cultural, that may have causality.
The 10 factors that we considered for our statistical analysis: -foreign trade as % of gdp -FDI as % of gdp -private ownership as % of capitalization -Illiteracy 15% & above (~high-school) -Net primary enrollment (%) -Net secondary enrollment (%) -% of GDP - agri, manu & service -Access to basic health/hygiene --Infant mortality --Access to potable water -Life expectancy (which is time-lag correlated to the previous factor)
Dependent variable: *GDP - in current USD (to off-set local currency inflations/devaluation) *GDP/per capita (to offset population size)
The predictions from the regression analysis were posted previously.
So, far as causality discussion went, the (economic theory) position is that primary or grassroot level education develops industry and society (with literacy, information and therefore an informed society). Which in turn generates demand for the next level in the evolution of economy (so to speak).
What this means is that manufacturing is supported by the primary education levels - high-school or trade-school grads. Service - including research comes next, when manufacturing demands improvements, sophisticated marketing, customer service etc. The countries that you mentioned in your article went through this transformation over several decades, and thus have the advantage. At the same time, the developing/ underdeveloped countries you referred to where burdened with ruinous exploitation.
Agriculture (for most developing nations) to an extent can be supported by illiterate people. At least low-yield.
This suggests that in theory, industry (in free-markets) will force development of the connections & development of higher education institutions. And the government as will be interested in macro-economic and trade policy, will create necessary domestic policies, investments and laws that will facilitate such a transformation.
We considered the role of higher education and research - found no correlation to economic growth in developing countries. There are at least two reasons for this - trickle down effect is a non-started, and as we all see generating highly qualified people without a domestic demand generally causes them to go to US, and is complete waste of money (imho).
Hope this is articulate enough & helps!
After all this, I maintain your methodolgy and conclusion are useless.



  Sankrant posted 5 yrs ago

Ajatshatru, I agree with you and the loss of our abilities in our native langauges is one of the consequence of our English language fixation. On the individual level efforts need to be made and I am engaging in these -- but we also need to get this problem more widely understood.



  Sankrant posted 5 yrs ago

Ramesh, It would be good to hear a better articulated argument from you, if you have a point. The essay does not propose language is the only reason for this issue, despite the correlation. I specifically point that out in the essay and point to colonization as a root cause and language as one of the effects. I am pointing out though that language is an important issue and it is worth studying how the educational systems in developed countries work in comparison with India. Yes, primary education is an important factor and we need to continue to put emphasis on that. Yet, what happens when these children graduate from primary and secondary schools and find that the system is still loaded against them because of the language divide (unlike in developed countries) and medium shift? When intelligent talented (and educated to the primary and secondary levels) children are confined to chaprassi-hood? While elementary education is important it needs to be connected to higher education in a cogent way for progress to happen. Did your analysis study different societies where this contact is or is not established in your economic study? This is a real problem on the ground that I would invite you to reflect on.



  Ramesh Chellaton posted 5 yrs ago

This is another compilation of nonsense. The "research" showing that language/class system has something to do with economic progress or GDP is complete dribble.

When we did our economic research on developing countries and their rate of development measured as gdp growth rate and number of services jobs as a percentage, we found that the investment in primary education (as measured by % enrollment) and open internal trading system (as measured by % privately owned businesses) as the biggest factors.

There is no sense in comparing Switzerland which has been independent most of its existence with Congo which has been independent for last 60-70 years after several decades of colonization that destroyed its civil and social infrastructure.

This article is complete hogwash!





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